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New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-170 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-25)
QUESTION 1
To maintain schema-consistency in an LDAP Directory Information Tree (DIT), the LDAP standard specifies that:
A. The client first downloads the DIT schema from the server and then makes sure every request it sends conforms to the schema; The server therefore doesn’t have to check DIT for consistency
B. The operator periodically scans the DIT to check that the schema is not violated, and manually corrects any inconsistencies caused by clients
C. The server periodically scans the DIT to check that the schema is not violated, and sends a notification to the operator when it finds an inconsistency caused by clients
D. The server periodically converts the DIT to an SQL database; Schema-checking is done by the SQL engine and then the database is converted back to a DIT
E. The server checks every client operation for schema consistency, and ignores requests that would result in a DIT inconsistency
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
In ACNS 5.X Content Delivery Network what is the purpose of defining a root Content Engine for a channel?
A. This Content Engine retrieves content from other Content Engines within the CDN.
B. This Content Engine is used by the administrator to manage the Content Delivery Network.
C. This Content Engine downloads the content from the origin server and distributes the content to all the Content Engines that belong to the Channel.
D. This Content Engine downloads the content from the Content Distribution Manager and distributes the content to all the Content Engines that belong to the Channel.
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What is the usual procedure taken if an unrecognized non-mandatory ISDN IE is received by a network?
A. Final handle the call
B. Final handle the call if 2 such IE is received
C. Ignore only if the IE received is not CS0, otherwise final handle the call
D. Send a Facility msg to the user notifying the user of sending unknown IEs but don’t final handle
E. Ignore the IEs
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
ATM cells are received across a link on a:
A. Known PVC or SVC value
B. Known VCI or VPI value
C. Known PVC or VCI value
D. Known SVC or VPI value
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A router is receiving updates for a subnet from different routing protocols. The administrator wishes to take advantage of a path via a route with a less favorable Administrative Distance. 300-170 dumps What can be done to affect this without losing any of the updates?
A. Configure a static route with an Administrative Distance of 120
B. Use the Router Configuration mode command distance with an appropriate ‘weight’ for this subnet
C. Create a distribute-list to block this subnet
D. Modify the default-metric weight of the routing protocol offering the more favorable Administrative Distance
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
MPLS traffic engineering routing information is carried by:
A. BGP MEDs
B. MP-BGP
C. OSPF Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
D. RTP or RTCP packets
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
WCCP is a communication protocol used between routers and cache devices. On what port does this protocol communicate?
A. 80
B. 2180
C. 8080
D. 52
E. 2048
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
In box-to-box redundancy on the CSS, to configure an ip circuit (VLAN) as a redundant circuit, what command is used?
A. Redundant-circuit
B. Redundant-type-circuit
C. Redundancy
D. Redundancy-type-circuit
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
If a Dialer Profile exists in the local configuration of a router, what is true?
A. A virtual-access password is configured automatically.
B. A virtual-access interface will inherit all configurations from the dialer profile.
C. AAA parameters cannot be applied to an interface.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which three fundamental elements characterize the PKIs used in asymmetric cryptography?
A. Confidentiality, authorization, message integrity
B. Confidentiality, authentication, accounting
C. Confidentiality, authentication, authorization
D. Confidentiality, authentication, message integrity
E. Authentication, authorization, accounting
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Routers running OSPF and sharing a common segment become neighbors on that segment. What statement regarding OSPF neighbors is FALSE?
A. The Primary and Secondary addresses on an interface allow the router to belong to different areas at the same time.
B. All routers must agree on the stub area flag in the OSPF Hello Packets.
C. Neighbors will fail to form an adjacency if their Hello and Dead intervals differ.
D. Two routers will not become neighbors if the Area-ID and Authentication password do not match.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
LDAP can be preferred over X.500 because:
A. LDAP is a protocol to access Directories and X.500 is not
B. LDAP is more generic and allows access to all kind of Directories; X.500 is limited to certificate chains
C. LDAP is a lighter version of X.500 as it uses UDP instead of TCP
D. LDAP is a lighter version of X.500 as it doesn’t require a full OSI stack implementation
E. LDAP is cross-platform while X.500 runs only on legacy systems
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, IS-IS defines a pseudonode or Designated Intermediate System, DIS. All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency with the DIS. The Backup DIS is called:
A. Redundant DIS
B. BDR
C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS
D. Designated Redundant System
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header?
A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a logical channel.
B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE device.
C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification.
D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Parties learn about a CA’s Certificate Revocation List (CRL) through:
A. The CRL which is contained in the CA certificate; It contains a list of all revoked certificates.
B. The CRL which is contained in the CA certificate; It contains a list of the serial numbers and revocation dates of all revoked certificates.
C. A CRL Distribution Point or CDP which is contained in the CA certificate and points to a location from which the CRL (a list of the serial numbers and revocation dates of revoked certificates) may be retrieved.
D. Either the CRL which is contained in the CA certificate, or a CDP from which the CRL may be retrieved. The CRL contains a list of the serial numbers and revocation dates of all revoked certificates.
E. Either the CRL which is contained in the CA certificate, or a CDP from which the CRL may be retrieved. The CRL contains a list of all revoked certificates.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
What is a possible way to avoid assymetric traffic flow when using the CSM for server load balancing and the CSM’s server side VLAN has an IP address configured on the MSFC? 300-170 dumps
A. In the server farm use the client nat command with a nat pool.
B. Use policy based routing to force traffic through the CSM’s client side VLAN.
C. Use policy based routing to force traffic through the CSM’s server side VLAN.
D. Set the server’s default gateway to the CSM’s client side IP address.
Correct Answer: A,C
QUESTION 17
During an SSL transaction, when a client tries to authenticate the server, the client will:
A. Check that the server certificate has not expired
B. Use the Issuer public key to verify the signature of the server certificate
C. Use the Subject public key to verify the signature of the server certificate
D. A and B
E. A and C
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
OSPF is defined on a Frame Relay interface providing point-to-multipoint connections. The remote neighbors can reach this central site, but are complaining of routing failures between each of the remote sites. The central router has all the routes for each remote site. Based on this information, what can be diagnosed as the biggest potential problem?
A. An over-subscribed Frame Relay switch will cause some packet loss.
B. There are problems in the use of OSPF Authentication.
C. There is an incorrect selection of the Designated Router.
D. There is an incorrect DLCI assigned on a point-to-point sub-interface.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
What statement regarding Network Qualifier Lists (NQL) is most correct?
A. It is used to define a list of IP addresses and networks to simplify and enhance the implementation of ACLs.
B. It is used to define a list of IP addresses to simplify and enhance the implementation of advanced balanced sticky source IP.
C. It is used to define a list of IP addresses of hosts allowed SNMP access to a Content Smart Switch.
D. It is used to define a list of IP addresses of FTP servers.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Every time a typing mistake is made at the exec prompt of a router, the message from the router indicates a lookup is being performed. Also, there is a waiting period of several seconds before the next command can be typed. Can this behavior be changed?
A. No, this is a built in feature of Cisco IOS software.
B. Yes, use the no ip domain-lookup command.
C. Yes, use the no ip helper-address command.
D. Yes, use the no ip multicast helper-map command.
E. Yes, use the no exec lookup command.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
For the spanning tree algorithm, a bridge builds part of its forwarding table based on:
A. Destination MAC addresses
B. 802.2 headers
C. Source MAC addresses
D. The Ethernet type field
E. The SNAP field
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Within Cisco’s Application and Content Networking Software Version 5 and above, Simplified Hybrid Routing utilizes 2 standard protocols to direct a client to a local CE. What are they ?
A. WCCP and proxy
B. Layer 2 redirects and HTTP
C. DNS and WCCP
D. HTTP and HTTPS
E. DNS and HTTP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
In HTTP 1.1 there is a CONNECT method defined in the RFC. What is the purpose of this method?
A. To allow a system administrator to manage the cache via HTTP or HTTPS
B. For a user’s browser to set up an HTTPS tunnel to proxy server
C. To allow transparent ftp redirection
D. For a user’s browser to set up an FTP tunnel to an origin server and tell an upstream proxy to tunnel the response
E. For a user’s browser to tell a proxy to connect to an origin server and tunnel the following communications to and from the user
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 24
A router is set to boot from flash, but cannot find boot commands in the configuration.
Also, valid files do not exist in the default flash device. 300-170 dumps The router will:
A. Boot from ROM, since there are no valid sources
B. Try to boot from the network, using a default filename
C. Terminate the boot process with an error message
D. Try to boot from the network, then boot from ROM as a backup
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
A router is set up to redistribute routing updates from OSPF to RIP. What answer best describes issues the network administrator needs to be aware of?
A. Split Horizon, Poison Reverse, Holddown
B. Slow convergence, limited hop-count metric, lack of network mask information, periodic broadcasts
C. None, OSPF is a link-state routing protocol which overcomes issues found in RIP.
D. Difference in metrics (e.g. hops vs. cost), subnet mask allocation/addressing (e.g. VLSM vs. fixed subnet mask length), routing protocol summarization (e.g. network boundaries)
Correct Answer: D
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